Logo

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 06:26

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

How would you advertise if you wanted to be a "tour guide" who can take you through the dark web while warning you what not to look at and not to click on?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Tom Hanks 'Not Surprised' Daughter's Memoir Includes Abuse Allegations Against Her Mom Samantha Lewes - TooFab

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why do most atheists in debates with theists take Bible verses out of context much of the time? Are they lying maliciously or do they not understand theology enough to understand the meaning?

There's no rule.